Questions that make me skeptical of a "time period" interpretation for the creative days:
Why does Jesus take Genesis 1–2 as teaching history (Matthew 19:4; Mark 10:6)?
Why does Paul take it as history (Romans 5:12; 1 Corinthians 11:8–9; 15:21–22; 15:45; 1 Timothy 2:12–14)?
Why does Ex 20: 9-ll compare our literal days and week to God's literal creative days and week? Why should I interpret one day literally and another day symbolically in the same verses?
Six days shalt thou labor, and do all thy work: but the seventh day is the Sabbath of the LORD thy God: in it thou shalt not do any work, thou, nor thy son, nor thy daughter, thy manservant, nor thy maidservant, nor thy cattle, nor thy stranger that is within thy gates: for in six days the LORD made heaven and earth, the sea, and all that in them is, and rested on the seventh day: wherefore the LORD blessed the Sabbath day, and hallowed it. (Ex. 20:9-11)
Why did the ancient, medieval, and modern church—until about 1800—have few commentators (if any) who believed in an ancient universe?
Why do all of the ancient translations and paraphrases, such as the Aramaic Targums, take the words at face value and translate them as “days,” with no hint that they might mean “ages” in Genesis 1?
Why is there little or no classical Rabbinic support for an ancient universe?
Why are there well-qualified PhD scientists who support physical data as consistent with a young-earth view?
Why is The coupling of the word “day” (yom) with an ordinal number (e.g., “second day,” “third day,” etc.) consistently employed throughout the history of the Hebrew Bible as the conventional way to designate a literal day in a literal seven-day week? (Gen. 7:4; 17:12).